Advanced project Management

2)Which EVM metric represents the value of all planned work together?
a:Budget at Completion (BAC)
b:Planned Value (PV)
c:Estimate to Complete (ETC)
d:Cost Performance Index (CPI)
3) Which type of schedule adjustment can be used to shorten a project’s duration by adding resources to help complete important project activities?
b:fast tracking
c:milestone development
d:critical path analysis
4) Normal time – Shortest time = ________
a:Crashing costs
b:Maximum possible time saving
c:Cost with maximum crashing
d:Fast tracking
5)A ________ is a basic bar chart that represents how frequently certain things occur.
a:control chart
d:scatter diagram
6) Configuration ________ documents and stores information about the product, including any changes.
b:status accounting
c:verification and auditing
d: defect management
7) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an efficient change control process?
a :It considers all change requests but only accepts those that it has the resources to implement comfortably.
b :It explains why a project’s results may differ from initial expectations.
c :It ensures that everyone on the project understands why decisions were made.
d: It eliminates frustration for team members.
8) Which of the following documents is quintessential to monitoring and controlling project activities?
a:risk management plan
b:change management plan
c:project management plan
d:quality management plan
9) What should the project manager do if a risk may cause the project to finish ahead of schedule?
a: mitigate the threat
b: avoid the risk
c: enhance the opportunity
d: transfer the risk to another group or organization
10) Which of the following statements describing scope creep is false?
a:Minor changes in scope can have dramatic effects on other areas of the project.
b:Poor scope management can seriously injure team morale and irreparably damage the project.
c: Variance analysis is an effective way to manage scope creep.
d: Scope creep is when a specific feature of a project grows outside of its original scope.
11) Naveen says that quality assurance (QA) uncovers defects in a product so that they can be fixed. Allison says that QA prevents defects from occurring in the first place. Who is correct?
a:Naveen is correct
b: Allison is correct
c: Naveen and Allison are both correct
d: Naveen and Allison are both incorrect
12) PV = $9000, EV = $7000, and AC = $6000. What is the schedule variance?
13) The change management plan sets the boundaries for the change control process by dictating what?
a: who owns the change control process
b: who has the authority to accept or reject changes
c: who is involved in the change control process
d: all of the above
14) Some quality management plans include ________, which facilitates process changes to promote the delivery of quality results.
a: a process improvement plan
b: a work breakdown structure
c: the project charter
d: kaizen
15) When an iteration of the product backlog is completed, the probability of risks occurring in that iteration will be what?
a: high
b: moderate
c: low
d: zero
16) ________ occur in 3-4-hour sessions and are used by adaptive teams to evaluate their operations through systematic continuous improvement and lessons learned.
a: Sprint reviews
b: Sprint retrospective meetings
c: The Five Whys
d: Configuration verification and auditing processes
17) How does the project team measure project progress?
a: by comparing the work produced to the project baselines
b: by using the work breakdown structure to check performance
c: by reviewing the project’s risk register
d: all of the above
18) Quantitative risk analysis ________.
a: predicts project outcomes based on combined risk effects
b: is used to update the risk register with new risks
c: offers descriptions of individual risks
d: prioritizes individual risks for additional analysis
19) Which of the following is typically not performed during the Monitoring and Controlling stage?
a: earned value management
b: project scope control
c: team development
d: quality assurance
20) A positive risk is likely to occur and will have a strong positive impact on the project. This opportunity should be considered what?
a: high risk
b: moderate risk
c: low risk
d: not a risk

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